OTArmor L1 Test – ICS/OT Cyber Security

QUIZ START

#1. What problem is associated with retrofit installations and SFPs?

Retrofit installs usually use Single Mode Fiber Optic Cable, which has SC connectors that do not plug directly into the SFP

Retrofit installs usually use Multi-Mode Fiber Optic Cable, which has SC connectors that do not plug directly into the SFP

Retrofit installs usually use Single Mode Fiber Optic Cable, which has LC connectors that do not plug directly into the SFP.

Retrofit installs usually use Multi-Mode Fiber Optic Cable, which has LC connectors that do not plug directly into the SFP

#2. What happens during a secure socket layer (SSL) handshake?

The controller requests the CRL from the CA server

The CA server informs the controller that access is granted or rejected

The client and server agree on connection security parameters

#3. What are the default groups the BHGEOper account is a Member Of?

#4. Based on the policies BHBHGE has defined, when a potential threat is detected, the McAfee application will:

Block access to the file

Prompt the user to determine whether to block or clean up the file

Automatically clean up the file

#5. From an admin command prompt, what command is used to check the status of the Application Control an HMI or VM?

sadmin status

sadmin lockdown

sadmin recover

sadmin enable

sadmin info

#6. The CA Server (CA1):

Is the central repository for cyber-security event and log data

Provides the entry point for security managers to administer security-related applications.

Issues and revokes digital certificates.

#7. You would use the Splunk FISMA application to:

Display reports that comply with SP 800-52 requirements

Display user record changes and computer account changes

Display reports for reviewing log data related to Microsoft Active Dire

#8. If you were going to set up a new user in the Server Manager, you would find the list of GE accounts in which set of folders?

Active Directory Domain Services

DNS Server

Network Policy and Access Services

#9. If you needed to change an individual’s assigned role, which dialog would you need to use?

Group Policy Management

Network Policy Server

Roles

#10. Load balancing Virtual Machines is a feature that allows VMs to be run on different hosts, which version of OTArmor/SecurityST uses this feature?

SecurityST/OTArmor Pro

SecurityST/OTArmot Standard

Compact Secure

SecurityST/OTArmor

#11. When trying to enter domain credentials in a SecureSuite application, you must press _______________ to open the login dialog for a VM. a. Ctrl + Alt + Delete

Ctrl + Alt + Insert

Actions – Ctrl-Alt-Delete

Shift + Alt + Insert

Ctrl + Alt + Delete

#12. Which level of the standard Network Architecture does the OTArmor/SecurityST system reside on?

Level 4

Level 2

Level 5

Level 0

Level 3

Level 1

#13. In Active Directory, a security group is:

A management point for password policy settings

A pre-configured user or device role

A group of users who all share a single username

#14. Which of the following is the Backup Domain Controller?

VH1

SP1

DC1

DR1

PM1

DC2

VH2

LM1

#15. When deploying an agent from the McAfee ePO, do you?

Select Device, Select Actions – Agent – Run Client Task

Select Device, Select Actions – Agent – Deploy Agents

#16. Which term below refers to settings that can be applied to computers that join the domain, as well as the enforcement of required configuration settings?

Group Policy

Certificate Authority

ANIXIS Password Management

#17. If you change a domain policy setting:

New HMIs will receive the updated setting, but HMIs that were already set up in the system will not receive it

The user will be prompted to select either the old or the new setting

Every HMI that logs in will receive the updated setting

#18. On what Virtual Machine does the McAfee ePO Application reside?

CA1

RDS1

DC1

EWS1

DR1

SP1

#19. When does the root certificate need to be updated?

When a new HMI logs in for the first time

When domain authentication is required

When the system is turned over to the customer

#20. Controls traffic (i.e., the network traffic to and from our controllers and HMIs) resides on the:

PDH

MDH

EGD

UDH

#21. Which of the following virtual machines is considered optional for Compact configurations?

SP1

AP3

CA1

DC1

#22. True or False, McAfee Application Control prevents users from accessing applications?

True

False

#23. How many users can be logged on to one server at one time?

#24. Which CatTools feature would you use to create a backup of the network switch configuration?

Activity Wizard

Device Wizard

Setup

#25. How would you locate in the ePO where the Policy Catalog is?

System Tree

Dashboards

#26. What type of OTArmor/SecurityST configuration is made when you have VH1, VH2 & VH3?

Compact

Pro

Standard

#27. The NIDS device:

Builds upon the Microsoft Active Directory system to prevent network intrusion

Is a standalone device that monitors network traffic and logs issues to the SIEM application

Is a network traffic monitoring device attached to each leaf switch in the star topology used in the OTArmor/SecurityST network configuration

#28. In the Cisco FlexStack:

Members behave as one logical switch

A cross-over cable is used to stack switches

Failover and recovery are built in, but replacement requires an outage

#29. A data diode is designed to pass data:

In either direction, depending on the configuration of the device’s security settings

From the “low” side to the “high” side

From the “high” side to the “low” side

#30. If you needed to turn off a port, how would you do so?

From DR1, use the CatTools application

From DC1, use the CatTools application

From SP1, use the Putty – SSH Terminal application

From DR1, use the Putty – SSH Terminal application

#31. For a controller running in the secure state, what role is played by the ControlST software

It issues the user certificate, which the controller recognizes as secure

It retrieves the user certificate and uses it to establish a secure connection to the controller

#32. In order for a network switch to verify a user’s access rights, the switch must first:

Contact a RADIUS server in which it has been defined as an allowed client

Supply the shared secret and user credentials to Active Directory

Request membership in the Network Administrators group

#33. The VMWare ESXi host web interface (GUI) is accessed from:

DR1

Any machine on the Domain

DC1

#34. What is the minimum password length in the password policy?

#35. What does the DLP (Data Loss Prevention) application do?

Allow access hard drives

Prevent downloads to the Mark VIe controller

Prevent user access to USB/DVD/CD drives

Prevent user access to different applications

#36. The default settings used for backups limit any one node to use no more than _____ of the available network loading

10%

25%

20%

#37. What is the maximum number of HMIs that a OTArmor/SecurityST Standard be configured for?

#38. When making a switch configuration change, which command would you use to save the new configuration?

Ctrl + Z

config t

Ctrl + S

wr mem

#39. OTArmor/SecurityST uses virtualization technology to minimize security lifecycle costs and provide enhanced recovery capabilities?

True

False

#40. When deploying patches, which of the following is true?

You can deploy multiple patches at a time to multiple computers

You can deploy multiple patches and multiple Service Packs at a time to multiple computers

You can deploy only one patch at a time to only one computer

You can deploy multiple patches at a time to only one computer

#41. Where would you look if you needed to find the Security State for each configured controller?

Component InfoView > Status tab

System Editor > Security State

Security State > Authenticated

#42. Which of the following is the Application Server, containing SolarWinds® CatTools™ and Acronis Backup Management System?

AP1

DC1

CA1

VH1

AP2

SP1

LM1

DR1

PM1

#43. How would an installation of the OTArmor/SecurityST solution at a nuclear power plant differ from a typical installation?

Outer Edge Switches are not permitted

A separate OTArmor/SecurityST Appliance is required for each reactor

The required topology is a ring network

#44. Which of the following does NOT describe a benefit of Active Directory?

Many controls extend from or leverage Active Directory

It eliminates the need for RADIUS authentication

It helps customers address NERC and other compliance requirements

#45. Which of the following provides the real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications, and is used to log security data and generate reports for compliance purposes?

SIM

SEM

SIEM

#46. What are the BHGE standards IP addresses of VH1,DC1,DC2 and CA1 servers:

#47. The McAfee software has been implemented in this solution because this anti-virus application includes:

Host Intrusion Detection functionality

An exclusively online updating process

A centralized management console, using individual agents installed on each HMI under security management

#48. The bridge on the top of the network Spanning Tree is what kind of switch?

Outer Edge

Edge

Bridge

Root

#49. When McAfee solidcore is in Observer Mode:

This mode indicates that Application Control is running and protection is enabled

Application Control isn't running on your system. Although the application is installed, its features are disabled

The application does not prevent any execution or changes made to the endpoints. Instead, it monitors execution activities and compares them with the local inventory and predefined rules

This mode indicates that protection is effective but changes are allowed on protected endpoints

#50. The Security Server (VH1) is?

A hardened computer running the VMware vSphere Hypervisor environment

A virtual machine that serves as the Primary Domain Controller

#51. To confirm that individual certificates have been revoked, you must:

Validate the revoked certificates

Publish the revoked certificates

Delete the revoked certificates

#52. Which Splunk application would you use to obtain information about failed logons?

Active Directory

Security

Change Management

#53. McAfee uses a ruleset to apply Whitelisting, True or False, is this function applied from the ePO?

True

False

#54. Which of the following does NOT describe a benefit of Cisco switches?

Layer 2 Threat Defense

Centralized updating and patching independent of the OTArmot/SecurityST Appliance

Improved Broadcast and Multicast Storm Control

#55. Splunk is:

A browser-based interface to security-related log and event information

A Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) application

A browser-based Unified Threat Management (UTM) device

#56. If you change a domain policy setting:

New HMIs will receive the updated setting, but HMIs that were already set up in the system will not receive it

The user will be prompted to select either the old or the new setting

Every HMI that logs in will receive the updated setting

#57. To install the monthly patch updates:

Place the patch DVD in the VH1 DVD drive, log in to PM1, attach the drive to SP1, and copy the files.

Place the patch DVD in the VH1 DVD drive, attach the drive to PM1, log in to PM1, and copy the files.

#58. What is a GFS (Grandfather – Father – Son ) backup scheme?

A differential backup once per day for a week, an incremental backup once per week for a month, and a full backup once per month for a year

An incremental backup once per day for a week, a full backup once per week for a month, and a differential backup once per month for a year

An incremental backup once per day for a week, a differential backup once per week for a month, and a full backup once per month for a year

#59. True or False, the High Availability (HA) option includes both hardware and data redundancy for security?

False

True

Finish

Results

Congratulation you pass the exam!!!

Sorry, it is time to review concepts and try again